When comparing the Greek language to the English, I've noticed that the Greek words mean the same thing in English, but are in variations. For example, pantas means all, but so does panta, pantes. Obviously they all relate to the word "all', but why are the words modified that way.
Quote from: gregoryfl on May 18, 2014, 11:24:38 AM
They are modified like that based on whether the modified word the 'all' is referring to is singular or plural, whether speaking of something masculine, feminine, or neuter in gender, and also whether the word is speaking of something 'from' or 'of', 'to' or 'for', or speaking of 'all' in general.
Ronen
But how can all be plural if it refers to everyone.
Quote from: UniversalSceptic on May 18, 2014, 06:51:31 PM
Quote from: gregoryfl on May 18, 2014, 11:24:38 AM
They are modified like that based on whether the modified word the 'all' is referring to is singular or plural, whether speaking of something masculine, feminine, or neuter in gender, and also whether the word is speaking of something 'from' or 'of', 'to' or 'for', or speaking of 'all' in general.
Ronen
But how can all be plural if it refers to everyone.
καὶ
πᾶς ὁ ὄχλος πρὸς τὴν θάλασσαν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἦσαν (Mark 4:1)
"All" here is the "pas" in bold, and is nominative singular masculine pertaining to "the crowd".
καὶ συναγαγὼν
πάντας τοὺς ἀρχιερεῖς καὶ γραμματεῖς τοῦ λαοῦ (Matthew 2:4)
"All" here is the "pantas" in bold, and this is accusative plural masculine pertaining to the chief priests and scribes.
There are many more grammatical forms of "pas" also, but this is just a couple of examples. Greek grammar is extremely complicated!
Ain't it still "all" of the crowd and "all" of the priests? Either "all" is "all of" or "all" ain't "all" at all. :dsunny:
Quote from: micah7:9 on August 08, 2014, 05:18:18 PM
Ain't it still "all" of the crowd and "all" of the priests? Either "all" is "all of" or "all" ain't "all" at all. :dsunny:
Yes, it refers to every person in the crowd, but the "all" is in reference to "the (single) crowd", so it is in the singular. :winkgrin:
Quote from: Shev on August 08, 2014, 06:48:09 PM
Quote from: micah7:9 on August 08, 2014, 05:18:18 PM
Ain't it still "all" of the crowd and "all" of the priests? Either "all" is "all of" or "all" ain't "all" at all. :dsunny:
Yes, it refers to every person in the crowd, but the "all" is in reference to "the (single) crowd", so it is in the singular. :winkgrin:
Backatcha :winkgrin: