Jesus suffered for about a day and was 'dead' for 3 days. So a total of about 4 days.
He paid for billions of sinner by taking their punishment upon Him. Are those 4 days more or less 'random'?
Or does it say something about the duration of punishment. The verse below also points out the anger/punishment lasts only a night. I'm not suggesting hell lasts only 6 hours but far from eternal. God also could have said lasts a day/days/week. But He choose a rather short duration to express Himself.
:hithere:
Psalm 30:5 His anger lasts only a
moment
. His favor lasts a lifetime. Weeping may last for the night, but there is a song of joy in the morning.
I think it turns a Calvinist argument on it's head about the alleged infinity of sin that tries to say that sin being against an infinite God is infinitely hateful and deserves an infinitude of punishment. Without even getting into a Scriptural refutation of the alleged infinity of sin, to me what you've said just points out the infinity of Jesus as the ransom for all. The value of Jesus as a ransom is far more than the cost that could ever be created by how bad any of us could possibly get.
Ok Martin.
But does it (the verse and Jesus last days) in your opion give an hint of the duration of corection?
Or should I read 'for the Lord a 1000 years is like a day. Giving the night mentioned in the verse a duration of 250 years.
I'm just wondering if God was meaning to say something or just was in a poetic mood.
I think you wrote once you figured out a duration of 5 weeks to 3 months???????