Gary said that God didn't pour out his wrath on His Son just to save a few hypocrite born agains...
While the latter part of the sentence is true, what about the first part?
We know in Isaiah 53 and in Colossians 1 that God was "pleased" to live in Christ and to reconcile the world to Himself... But my question is - was it God in some way "pouring out holy wrath" on Jesus on the Cross?
Or as in the book of Hebrews, allowing Him to split His body open to make the way to the holiest of holies?
Because the "God pouring out His wrath" theology seems to be a cornerstone tenet of "temporary torment" - where people subject to judgment must undergo the same suffering and torture Christ went through...