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An Experiment in Context Twisting

Started by legoman, June 17, 2009, 05:46:09 PM

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legoman

This doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really getting to me.  I am all for looking at things in proper context, but it seems many use it as a license to rewrite clear scriptures to mean something other than what is obvious.  Case in point with "All men":  most ETers say "all men" doesn't really mean all men - we have to look at the context.  Therefore verses like 1 Tim 2:4 and 1 Tim 4:10 don't preach universal salvation.  They say "all men" rarely means literally all men.

I would like to take this in a different direction.  We know ALL MEN sin, correct?  Oh REALLY?  What verse says ALL MEN sin?  Did you look into the context of who the "all men" was?  All rarely means all.

So here is the experiment.  I will look at different verses that allegedly "prove" all men are sinners, then I will look at the context to prove that all men don't really sin.  Help me out tentmakers!  Throw your best "proof-texts" at me and I will show you what the context really says.  (BTW I fully expect to fail eventually, but I am interested in how far this context twisting can be stretched).

--

Let me start off with an easy one:

Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned

Yes sin entered the world.  But does "world" mean literally all men?  I think not.  See Adam brought sin into the world, and many men are sinners, but not ALL.

Is this really talking about all men?  Have all men really sinned?  Well did Jesus sin?  Jesus was a man right?  So at least we must conceed all is not really the entire all.  Who else is left out of the "all men" - How about newborns, just seconds old.  Have they sinned?  I don't think so.  How about those who are not ungodly (verse 6) - if you are not ungodly, then you are godly, and you haven't sinned.  Check Romans 5:6.  It tells us who Christ died for:  Christ died for the UNGODLY.  He didn't die for the Godly, because they have no sins.  Verse 7 says as much.  Look at verse 14: Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned... WOW did you see that?  SOME HAD NOT SINNED!  How can all men be all men then?

Look at verse 15 and verse 19 for clarification.  Clearly it is only many who have sinned, likewise it is the same many that Christ died for.  Only many sinned, and Christ died for those same many, because Christ died for the ungodly.

So who is the "all men" that have sinned really talking about?  First, as I have shown, it is not all, it is only many.  It is specifically the ungodly.  But which ungodly?  We must continue to look at the context.

Who is Paul talking to here?
Romans 5:8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners


Who is the "us"?  Who is the "we" who are "sinners"?  Clearly the context is Paul talking to Romans in a letter.  Paul is talking about himself and the Romans.  More specifically, Paul is talking about himself and the churches in Rome.

In this context, it is only them who are the sinners - the churches in Rome!  They are the ungodly Paul is referring to.  Yes there are other sinners in the world too.  But can this chapter be shown as proof that all men have sinned?  I don't think so.  You would have to ignore the context.

--

I can't believe I wrote something that absurd, yet in a strange twisted way - it makes sense?  Now the challenge is out:  show me a verse you think "proves" all men are sinners, and I will demonstrate using "CONTEXT" that you are "incorrect".  ALSO Please don't confuse my ramblings here for the truth!

I hope to show that this doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really just a doctrine of "WORD TWISTING".

CHALLENGE ON!  :Sparkletooth:

WhiteWings

There are a lot of smart people on carm that would like to read this.... :laughing7:



As you wrote Jesus was no sinner. He was the savior. Therefore not all can be saved because that would mean Jesus came to save Himself too.
1 Timothy 2:3-4  ...God our Savior;  Who will have all men to be saved...
John 12:47  And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.
Romans 4:5 But to the one who does not work, but believes in the one who declares the ungodly righteous ...

chuckt

Eze 18:4 "Behold, all souls are Mine; The soul of the father As well as the soul of the son is Mine; The soul who sins shall die. 

cant think of one person who has sinned that didnt die.

chuckt


legoman

Quote from: chuckt on June 17, 2009, 06:24:11 PM
Eze 18:4 "Behold, all souls are Mine; The soul of the father As well as the soul of the son is Mine; The soul who sins shall die. 

cant think of one person who has sinned that didnt die.

chuckt



Hmm, thats a good one euty, but you underestimate the DOCTRINE OF CONTEXT! MWHUAHAHAHA (evil laugh).

Let me see where to begin...

Actually I think this one is refuted fairly easily.  Yes all people die.  But I did show previously in Romans 5:14 (Yes I know this is "out of context") that Death reigned over men, "even over those who had not sinned".

So what is Eze 18 talking about?  It says the soul that sins dies.  Quite true.  But what about the rest?  It doesn't say.  Based on Romans 5:14, we must conclude the following: The soul that doesn't sin - it also dies! 

So while I agree that all people die, it doesn't necessarily prove all men sin.


--

Your first mistake was assuming you are dealing with a rational mind...  :winkgrin:

Moshood

Romans 5:19
For as through the disobedience of the one man, the many were constituted sinners: so also through the obedience of the one, shall the many be constituted righteous.

Beloved Servant

Don't the scriptures say Jesus became sin?
Perhaps flesh, itself, is the sin.

WhiteWings

I think 100 man are many man. So the many means 100 men. 200 tops.
1 Timothy 2:3-4  ...God our Savior;  Who will have all men to be saved...
John 12:47  And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.
Romans 4:5 But to the one who does not work, but believes in the one who declares the ungodly righteous ...

chuckt

Quoteeven over those who had not sinned

why did you stop there??

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 

:happy3:


God told adam...dying YE SHALL DIE...... adam was already dieing physically, the norm at that time was to live till 1000 yrs adam died at 730, in that day 1000 is as a day, leaving 70.


euty...er um...chuckt

legoman

Quote from: chuckt on June 17, 2009, 07:02:05 PM
Quoteeven over those who had not sinned

why did you stop there??

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 

Because that doesn't help with the context!  :happy3:

Next verse please...

legoman

Quote from: Beloved Servant on June 17, 2009, 06:56:02 PM
Don't the scriptures say Jesus became sin?
Perhaps flesh, itself, is the sin.

What you say sounds plausible.  But I need chapter and verse # so I can check the context  :winkgrin:

chuckt

Quote from: legoman on June 17, 2009, 07:03:35 PM
Quote from: chuckt on June 17, 2009, 07:02:05 PM
Quoteeven over those who had not sinned

why did you stop there??

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 

Because that doesn't help with the context!  :happy3:

Next verse please...


that was quick i was modifying:

God told adam...dying YE SHALL DIE...... adam was already dieing physically, the norm at that time was to live till 1000 yrs adam died at 730, in that day 1000 is as a day, leaving 70.


euty...er um...chuckt


i cant post on this thread it reminds me of carm  :mshock: :laughing7:

Paul Hazelwood




Jb 1:8 So Yahweh said to Satan, Have you set your heart on My servant Job? For there is no one like him on the earth, a man flawless and upright, fearing Elohim and withdrawing from evil.


legoman

Quote from: Paul Hazelwood on June 17, 2009, 07:06:49 PM



Jb 1:8 So Yahweh said to Satan, Have you set your heart on My servant Job? For there is no one like him on the earth, a man flawless and upright, fearing Elohim and withdrawing from evil.



Good point Paul.  Proof that it is possible that there can be a man who is sinless (flawless)!

legoman

Quote from: chuckt on June 17, 2009, 07:04:54 PM
i cant post on this thread it reminds me of carm  :mshock: :laughing7:

No problem  :laughing7: (if you notice I haven't posted at CARM much lately).


Anyway, I'm surprised no one has brought up Romans 3:10 yet.  There's a lot of CONTEXT there I can rewrite meaning with dig into  :laughing7: 

Paul Hazelwood

Quote from: legoman on June 17, 2009, 07:14:30 PM
Quote from: chuckt on June 17, 2009, 07:04:54 PM
i cant post on this thread it reminds me of carm  :mshock: :laughing7:

No problem  :laughing7: (if you notice I haven't posted at CARM much lately).


Anyway, I'm surprised no one has brought up Romans 3:10 yet.  There's a lot of CONTEXT there I can rewrite meaning with dig into  :laughing7: 


Or we can just say the bible is contradictory and can't be trusted.  ;)


legoman

Quote from: Paul Hazelwood on June 17, 2009, 07:29:17 PM


Or we can just say the bible is contradictory and can't be trusted.  ;)



Perhaps this whole thread is just a bit silly.  But I've actually had conversations like this with ETers.  Check out my thread at pychen's xanga blog if you want to see an exercise in frustration.

His main point so far has been that "every knee bowing and every tongue swearing allegiance" in Isaiah 45:23 is not really talking about everyone - because we have to look at the CONTEXT.  He contends its only really Israel that does this and thus only Israel is saved - that is what the context shows.

THEN Why does it say "every knee bows" instead of "all Israel bows"?

Of course I made the mistake in assuming I am dealing with a rational mind....

Beloved Servant

Young's Literal Translation (YLT)


2 Corinthians 5:21 (Young's Literal Translation)

21 for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him.

Paul Hazelwood

Quote from: legoman on June 17, 2009, 07:37:53 PM
Perhaps this whole thread is just a bit silly.  But I've actually had conversations like this with ETers.  Check out my thread at pychen's xanga blog if you want to see an exercise in frustration.


Not silly, but the arguments of context then become who's context is correct.   My typical responce is that there is no scriptural declaration that obligates me to agree with their context in the first place.



legoman

Quote from: Beloved Servant on June 17, 2009, 07:38:21 PM
Young's Literal Translation (YLT)


2 Corinthians 5:21 (Young's Literal Translation)

21 for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him.

Alright, let the context twisting begin.  Actually I'm not sure how much longer I can keep this up without losing my sanity...


First, the oldest trick in the book.  Who is this letter to?  The CORINTHIANS!  There is your context!  Paul is talking to the Corinthians, so when He refers to "our sins" He means only specifically the Corinthians.

Verse 20 refers to God reconciling the "world".  Clearly this doesn't mean everyone because we already know some people don't sin.  He merely means, throughout the world, there are some sinners, and God will reconcile those sinners.  Not everyone will be or even needs to be reconciled.  Only the sinners (who are not everyone).

So there is your context for verse 21.  Christ became sin on behalf of "us" - namely the Corinthians, but also sinners throughout the world.

Again, no proof that everyone sins.

Peace... isn't it fun what you can come up with when words change meaning?

Beloved Servant

Hey Legoman!
good twisting!

Funny thing though, when I read what you did I get an awful feeling in the pit of my stomach.
That stuff just doesn't "agree with me."

Doc

Quote from: legoman on June 17, 2009, 05:46:09 PM
This doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really getting to me.  I am all for looking at things in proper context, but it seems many use it as a license to rewrite clear scriptures to mean something other than what is obvious.  Case in point with "All men":  most ETers say "all men" doesn't really mean all men - we have to look at the context.  Therefore verses like 1 Tim 2:4 and 1 Tim 4:10 don't preach universal salvation.  They say "all men" rarely means literally all men.

I would like to take this in a different direction.  We know ALL MEN sin, correct?  Oh REALLY?  What verse says ALL MEN sin?  Did you look into the context of who the "all men" was?  All rarely means all.

So here is the experiment.  I will look at different verses that allegedly "prove" all men are sinners, then I will look at the context to prove that all men don't really sin.  Help me out tentmakers!  Throw your best "proof-texts" at me and I will show you what the context really says.  (BTW I fully expect to fail eventually, but I am interested in how far this context twisting can be stretched).

--

Let me start off with an easy one:

Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned

Yes sin entered the world.  But does "world" mean literally all men?  I think not.  See Adam brought sin into the world, and many men are sinners, but not ALL.

Is this really talking about all men?  Have all men really sinned?  Well did Jesus sin?  Jesus was a man right?  So at least we must conceed all is not really the entire all.  Who else is left out of the "all men" - How about newborns, just seconds old.  Have they sinned?  I don't think so.  How about those who are not ungodly (verse 6) - if you are not ungodly, then you are godly, and you haven't sinned.  Check Romans 5:6.  It tells us who Christ died for:  Christ died for the UNGODLY.  He didn't die for the Godly, because they have no sins.  Verse 7 says as much.  Look at verse 14: Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned... WOW did you see that?  SOME HAD NOT SINNED!  How can all men be all men then?

Look at verse 15 and verse 19 for clarification.  Clearly it is only many who have sinned, likewise it is the same many that Christ died for.  Only many sinned, and Christ died for those same many, because Christ died for the ungodly.

So who is the "all men" that have sinned really talking about?  First, as I have shown, it is not all, it is only many.  It is specifically the ungodly.  But which ungodly?  We must continue to look at the context.

Who is Paul talking to here?
Romans 5:8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners


Who is the "us"?  Who is the "we" who are "sinners"?  Clearly the context is Paul talking to Romans in a letter.  Paul is talking about himself and the Romans.  More specifically, Paul is talking about himself and the churches in Rome.

In this context, it is only them who are the sinners - the churches in Rome!  They are the ungodly Paul is referring to.  Yes there are other sinners in the world too.  But can this chapter be shown as proof that all men have sinned?  I don't think so.  You would have to ignore the context.

--

I can't believe I wrote something that absurd, yet in a strange twisted way - it makes sense?  Now the challenge is out:  show me a verse you think "proves" all men are sinners, and I will demonstrate using "CONTEXT" that you are "incorrect".  ALSO Please don't confuse my ramblings here for the truth!

I hope to show that this doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really just a doctrine of "WORD TWISTING".

CHALLENGE ON!  :Sparkletooth:


:laughing7:

Congratulations; with that example, you've just become a calvinist!

jabcat

#21
There are good points to be made here.  However, an extreme one way or another, if that's all it is, an extreme, IMO is not good.  Neither are.

Anyone can twist just about anything.  IMO, it's the heart, the understanding, and the twisting that's the problem, not PROPER context.  There are a lot of bad doctors...doesn't mean medicine is evil so I'll never go to a doctor again.  Word twisting and context are not necessarily the same things.  Just because it can be misused, doesn't mean it's bad.  People misuse the Word of God.  Does that make the Word bad?

IMO, NOT using PROPER context can be just as damaging as using IMPROPER context.  One can twist either way, and I've seen it done...both extremes.  Reminds me of throwing the baby out with the bathwater.  As long as we're reasoning, let's be reasonable please. 

Paul's statement (which in and of itself, I'm not picking at) "Or we can just say the bible is contradictory and can't be trusted.  ;)" can be argued if using either "dishonest" method...no context, or twisted-misused-for-my-own-purposes context. 

IMO, if someone's misusing context (and as Paul says, sometimes that's debatable) why not reason over PROPER meaning, useage, OVERALL context of scripture, rather than just jumping into another inaccurate extreme?  My   :2c:.
The oldest known manuscripts agree with each other 99% of the time.  The scriptures, accurately translated, Spirit revealed - reliable.   Looking unto Jesus, the Author and Finisher of our faith.  Heb. 12:2

legoman

Quote from: Beloved Servant on June 17, 2009, 09:22:46 PM
Hey Legoman!
good twisting!

Funny thing though, when I read what you did I get an awful feeling in the pit of my stomach.
That stuff just doesn't "agree with me."

I was feeling the same thing as I wrote it.  Thus why I don't think I will continue with this much longer...


legoman

Quote from: Doc on June 17, 2009, 09:23:49 PM
Quote from: legoman on June 17, 2009, 05:46:09 PM
This doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really getting to me.  I am all for looking at things in proper context, but it seems many use it as a license to rewrite clear scriptures to mean something other than what is obvious.  Case in point with "All men":  most ETers say "all men" doesn't really mean all men - we have to look at the context.  Therefore verses like 1 Tim 2:4 and 1 Tim 4:10 don't preach universal salvation.  They say "all men" rarely means literally all men.

I would like to take this in a different direction.  We know ALL MEN sin, correct?  Oh REALLY?  What verse says ALL MEN sin?  Did you look into the context of who the "all men" was?  All rarely means all.

So here is the experiment.  I will look at different verses that allegedly "prove" all men are sinners, then I will look at the context to prove that all men don't really sin.  Help me out tentmakers!  Throw your best "proof-texts" at me and I will show you what the context really says.  (BTW I fully expect to fail eventually, but I am interested in how far this context twisting can be stretched).

--

Let me start off with an easy one:

Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned

Yes sin entered the world.  But does "world" mean literally all men?  I think not.  See Adam brought sin into the world, and many men are sinners, but not ALL.

Is this really talking about all men?  Have all men really sinned?  Well did Jesus sin?  Jesus was a man right?  So at least we must conceed all is not really the entire all.  Who else is left out of the "all men" - How about newborns, just seconds old.  Have they sinned?  I don't think so.  How about those who are not ungodly (verse 6) - if you are not ungodly, then you are godly, and you haven't sinned.  Check Romans 5:6.  It tells us who Christ died for:  Christ died for the UNGODLY.  He didn't die for the Godly, because they have no sins.  Verse 7 says as much.  Look at verse 14: Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned... WOW did you see that?  SOME HAD NOT SINNED!  How can all men be all men then?

Look at verse 15 and verse 19 for clarification.  Clearly it is only many who have sinned, likewise it is the same many that Christ died for.  Only many sinned, and Christ died for those same many, because Christ died for the ungodly.

So who is the "all men" that have sinned really talking about?  First, as I have shown, it is not all, it is only many.  It is specifically the ungodly.  But which ungodly?  We must continue to look at the context.

Who is Paul talking to here?
Romans 5:8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners


Who is the "us"?  Who is the "we" who are "sinners"?  Clearly the context is Paul talking to Romans in a letter.  Paul is talking about himself and the Romans.  More specifically, Paul is talking about himself and the churches in Rome.

In this context, it is only them who are the sinners - the churches in Rome!  They are the ungodly Paul is referring to.  Yes there are other sinners in the world too.  But can this chapter be shown as proof that all men have sinned?  I don't think so.  You would have to ignore the context.

--

I can't believe I wrote something that absurd, yet in a strange twisted way - it makes sense?  Now the challenge is out:  show me a verse you think "proves" all men are sinners, and I will demonstrate using "CONTEXT" that you are "incorrect".  ALSO Please don't confuse my ramblings here for the truth!

I hope to show that this doctrine of "CONTEXT" is really just a doctrine of "WORD TWISTING".

CHALLENGE ON!  :Sparkletooth:


:laughing7:

Congratulations; with that example, you've just become a calvinist!


Oh dear, what have I become...

LOL actually as I was writing it I was sort of thinking this still has a UR message.

Hey not everyone is a sinner, so not everyone needs a savior (only those who sinned)!  And Christ came to save only the sinners.  The rest are ok as they are, don't need saving, so everyone is happy!  Yay we still got UR!

LOL I know it is twisted... please forgive me.


legoman

Quote from: jabcat on June 17, 2009, 09:27:21 PM
There are good points to be made here.  However, an extreme one way or another, if that's all it is, an extreme, IMO is not good.  Neither are.

Anyone can twist just about anything.  IMO, it's the heart, the understanding, and the twisting that's the problem, not PROPER context.  There are a lot of bad doctors...doesn't mean medicine is evil so I'll never go to a doctor again.  Word twisting and context are not necessarily the same things.  Just because it can be misused, doesn't mean it's bad.  People misuse the Word of God.  Does that make the Word bad?

IMO, NOT using PROPER context can be just as damaging as using IMPROPER context.  One can twist either way, and I've seen it done...both extremes.  Reminds me of throwing the baby out with the bathwater.  As long as we're reasoning, let's be reasonable please. 

Paul's statement (which in and of itself, I'm not picking at) "Or we can just say the bible is contradictory and can't be trusted.  ;)" can be argued if using either "dishonest" method...no context, or twisted-misused-for-my-own-purposes context. 

IMO, if someone's misusing context (and as Paul says, sometimes that's debatable) why not reason over PROPER meaning, useage, OVERALL context of scripture, rather than just jumping into another inaccurate extreme?  My   :2c:.

Agreed.  To summarize, as I said in the other thread:  twisting the words of a scripture, and then calling it "context", is just plain wrong.

I think this (and the other) thread have helped me immensely as I now know how to answer better when someone says you are taking things out of context.

Simply: context is necessary to understand the passage, but should not be abused to change the meaning of words.

Legoman