Tentmaker Forum

Apologetics - Universal Reconciliation => Word Studies => Topic started by: Paul on August 10, 2008, 02:45:10 PM

Title: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: Paul on August 10, 2008, 02:45:10 PM
To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ forever. Amen. (Rom. 16:27)

And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for the eons of the eons. (Rev. 20:10)
Title: Re: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: Paul Hazelwood on August 10, 2008, 05:16:21 PM
Quote from: Paul on August 10, 2008, 02:45:10 PM
To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ forever. Amen. (Rom. 16:27)

And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for the eons of the eons. (Rev. 20:10)


No, the Greek in Romans 16:27  is rendered  "into the eons" .   So should we write, into the forever?

The bible tells us to use a pattern of sound words.   Thats not one,  ;)

Title: Re: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: martincisneros on August 10, 2008, 09:01:34 PM
Translations should be consistent and strict, and then just leave the rest to the Apostles, Prophets, Evangelists, Pastors, Teachers, and everybody else in the Body of Christ to work out their own interpretation with reverence and awe.

However, in the realm of Christian bookstores there's what's called "translations" and what's called "paraphrases." 

Might be fun to see what a good paraphrase would look like whose author(s) were aware of UR and a few other things and see where they'd go with it.
Title: Re: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: sven on January 09, 2009, 10:34:17 PM
i have one question

did the noun aion itself ever mean eternity? or was it used in the sense of eternity

because if the noun itself never meant eternity, the adjective might also have never ment eternal
Title: Re: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: WhiteWings on January 22, 2009, 09:10:12 PM
Quote from: Paul on August 10, 2008, 02:45:10 PM
To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ forever. Amen. (Rom. 16:27)

And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for the eons of the eons. (Rev. 20:10)

Rom 16:27  to the only wise God, through Jesus Christ, to him be glory to the ages. Amen.
Doesn't the 'trough' part end when Jesus steps down and God starts His reign.
If so ages seems correct to me.

I do have more problems with:
Romans 16:26 YLT  and now having been made manifest, also, through prophetic writings, according to a command of the age-during God, having been made known to all the nations for obedience of faith--
Title: Re: Would it be accurate to vary the translations of "aion?"
Post by: sven on January 22, 2009, 09:17:35 PM
romans 16,25

Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel, and the proclaiming of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery having been kept unvoiced during eternal times, 26 but now has been made plain  (Green's Literal)

this eternal (aionon) times had obviously an end, it seems allmost all english bibles don't consider these times to be eternal, this is the only verse where God is called aionon in the NT

Now to him that is able to establish you, according to my glad tidings and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery,  as to which silence has been kept in the times of the ages (aionon), 26 but which has now been made manifest, and by prophetic scriptures, according to commandment of the eternal (aionon) God, made known for obedience of faith to all the nations 27 the only wise God, through Jesus Christ, to whom be glory for ever. Amen. (Darby)