Didn?t Jesus speak Aramaic and Hebrew?

[AshaMithra]

Since Jesus was Jewish, he likely would have spoken Hebrew at the synagogue and Aramaic in everyday affairs. He probably knew some Greek, but likely wasn?t well versed in Greek. Certain words were used in the NT to refer to punishments (the NT was written in Koine Greek). 

Yet Josephus Flavius (Joseph Ben Mattathias) said the Pharisees of that day, along with Josephus himself and Philo, used different, harsher Greek words for punishment and duration. Jesus was speaking to a mainly Aramaic speaking Jewish audience.

Would Jesus have been familiar with all of these Greek terms? How did the disciples and original writers know what Jesus truly meant since he likely spoke to them in Aramaic?

I can only think Jesus discussed these things off the page with his disciples, since Aramaic/Hebrew uses less words than Greek (I think). Maybe he also had some Greek and Latin speaking disciples as well,. likely Gentiles, which may have been scandalous to many of the Jews in that day.

I will give an example. Regarding kolasin and timoria, I don?t even know if there are two separate Aramaic equivalents as they are in Greek. Same goes for aionion kolasin vs. eirgmos aidios (eternal imprisonment) and timorion adialeipton (endless torment)?

How would Jesus or the NT writers have known of the remedial nature the word basanos employed in Classical Greek isince they knew mostly common Koine Greek and probably very little classicical Greek?

Aidios is no longer used in modern Greek, and today?s Greek word for hell is kolasi.