How Long Is “For Ever?”
It is an interesting fact that every intelligent believer in extermination (or “annihilation”) can answer the doctrine of eternal torment to his own complete satisfaction, and, without subterfuge, or doing violence to the Scripture. He just takes Biblical usage for his answer.
In all languages, it is usage that determines meaning. The King James version records Paul as writing to the Roman church (1:13) that he had often “purposed to come to you, but was let hitherto.” Today, we would say “hindered,” instead of “let.” In three centuries, usage has completely changed the meaning of the word “let.” It may be spelled the same, and pronounced the same, but the meaning has been changed to the exact opposite.
Since usage always determines meaning, Biblical usage, certainly, always determines Biblical meaning. Let us illustrate.
The term “for ever” (even as the related terms, “eternal” and “everlasting”) often occurs in verses in which it cannot possibly mean unending. Later, we shall study this matter at greater length; but for the present, a few illustrations will suffice. In the story of Jonah, one is surprised to hear Jonah declare, while in the belly of the fish, “I went down to the bottoms of the mountains; the earth with her bars was about me for ever” (Jonah 2:6). Jonah, however, was in the fish only three days and three nights. Similarly, in the case of a Hebrew slave who loved his master and who did not wish to go free at the end of the seventh year, we read: “His master shall bore his ear through with an awl; and he shall serve him for ever” (Exod. 21:6). Of course that couldn’t be longer than the slave’s life span. Again, when Solomon built the temple unto the Lord, he began his prayer of dedication with the statement: “I have surely built Thee an house to dwell in, a settled place for Thee to abide in for ever” (1 Kings 8:13). And the Lord answered Solomon: “I have heard thy prayer and thy supplication, that thou has made before Me: I have hallowed this house, which thou hast built, to put My Name there for ever ” (1 Kings 9:3). Yet Solomon’s temple lasted for only about 400 years.
Here is something that ought to be clear to any intelligent, honest man. A word that is used to mean, in one case, three days and nights, in another case, a man’s life-time, and in still another, a period of about four centuries, surely does not mean unending or eternal–no matter what English word is used to translate it. Usage determines meaning. That is why a believer in extermination laughs at the doctrine of eternal torment. He knows that Biblical usage is against any such meaning.
Does “Destroy” Mean to Exterminate?
But the believer in extermination may not see so clearly that his own doctrine can be overthrown by the same appeal to Biblical usage. The evidence for this does not appear so clearly in the English translation as the use of the term “for ever” does. One must study the Hebrew and Greek words themselves of the Scriptures. While it is true that doing so may open the way for some to accuse us of “trying to tear the Bible to pieces,” not all will make such claims. Some are anxious for the truth at any cost, and will not accuse honest, believing souls of “handling the Word of God deceitfully,” where this is not the case. It is for such that we are writing.
Young’s Analytical Concordance lists 45 Hebrew words and 10 Greek words that are translated “destroy,” while 31 Hebrew words and 4 Greek words are translated “destruction.” These words have a variety of meanings, as is evident to all who will study these questions. These meanings include “to kill,” “to mar,” “to bruise,” “to break,” “to cut down,” “to put an end to,” “to abolish,” “to lay waste,” etc. In the story of the flood it is written that God said, “I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth.” Does that mean that the antediluvians were permanently exterminated, and will never come to judgment for their sins?
Jeremiah pronounced woe against Jerusalem thus: “For who shall have pity upon thee, O Jerusalem? or who shall bemoan thee? or who shall go aside to ask how thou doest? Thou hast forsaken me, saith the Lord, thou art gone backward: therefore will I stretch out My hand against thee, and destroy thee.” Does it follow from this that Jerusalem was annihilated and so no longer exists? The fact is that Jerusalem has probably been “destroyed” more frequently than any other city in the world, yet it still exists. Its people have been killed, its walls and buildings have been broken down, its government has been changed again and again, but Jerusalem still exists. It has not been exterminated.
Similarly, Sodom was more completely “destroyed” than any other city of which we know. Jude 7 says it was “set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.” But Sodom is to be restored again (see Ezekiel 16:44-63).
Someone will probably say, Yes, that is clear enough, but how about the statement of Jesus, “fear Him Who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell” (“Gehenna;” Matt.-10:28). Well, that does sound formidable, doesn’t it? That is, this is so until we learn that the same word is used in the statement, “He that findeth his life shall lose it; and he that loseth [destroyeth] his life for My sake shall find it” (Matt. 10:39). If his life was exterminated, it couldn’t be found again. Perhaps someone else may ask about the statement, “punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord” (2 Thess. 1:9). That sounds unanswerable, doesn’t it? Well, maybe; but only until we learn that the Greek word olethros translated “destruction” here, is used in other places where it cannot possibly mean “extermination” (see 1 Cor. 5:5; note the verb “destroy” in Hebrews 11:28, which is from the same root).
Do you think that all the “first-born” of Egypt, including the innocent babes, were exterminated, and will never have a chance to be justly judged, nor receive any recognition from God that they ever existed? Surely God does not deal with anyone in such a way as that! Please note, too, that the word “destruction” in 2 Thessalonians 1:9, is limited by the word “everlasting,” and that the word “everlasting” is a misleading translation. We shall study that Greek word more carefully later; but suffice it to say for the present that the idea of the Greek word here is “eonian,” or “pertaining to the age(s).” It does not mean unending. (See the sections, “How Long Is For Ever?” and Concluding Section).
It is usage that determines meaning—the Scripture’s own usage, not man’s. What counts is the meanings that the Biblical writers themselves gave to their own words, not the meanings that our English translations may sometimes provide.
According to Biblical usage, there is not a single clear statement of the “endless extermination of sinners” in the whole Bible—not even one. The doctrine of extermination is based wholly on inferences—according to human traditions and presuppositions. Thus the doctrines of both eternal torment and extermination are based wholly on false translations. There is not a single clear statement, correctly translated, in the entire Bible which supports either doctrine.
The Penalty For Sin
Jesus is the Savior because He bore the just penalty for sin. “Because Christ also suffered for sins once, the righteous for the unrighteous, that He might bring us to God” (1 Peter 3:18). “Him Who knew no sin He made to be sin on our behalf; that we might become the righteousness of God in Him” (2 Cor. 5:21). “Who His own self bare our sins in His body upon the tree, that we, having died unto sins, might live unto righteousness; by Whose stripes ye were healed” (1 Peter 2:24). “And He is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world” (1 John 2:2).
Paul insists that Christ’s death on the cross as a propitiation for sin, manifests the righteous judgment of God upon sin. “Whom God set forth to be a propitiation, through faith in His blood, to show His righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God” (Rom. 3:25). That is, for thousands of years God did not deal adequately and completely with sin—He “passed it over.” He did not deal with mankind on the “cash basis,” where full payment is required immediately on each transaction; but He dealt with the race on the “credit basis,” under which method payment in full is expected at a later date.
Now when God made Him “to be sin on our behalf” (2 Cor. 5:21), and “laid on Him the iniquity of us all” (Isa. 53:6), Paul insists that God dealt fully and righteously with human sin in all its aspects. Accordingly, whatever debt, or price, or judgment, or penalty should have been met (call it by any word you choose), He exacted in full from His own Beloved Son. “In the crucified, God is dealing with the whole sin of the whole universe in holy love, in righteous judgment, and in redeeming grace.” Recognizing this great fact, our Lord, hanging upon the cross, and ready to give up His spirit, spoke the word that, in His day, was regularly written across every receipted bill, “Tetelestai,” “Paid in full” (John 19:30; lit., “It is accomplished”). Christ on the cross demonstrates the love of God as nothing else ever did or can; yet He did more. The holy Son of mankind was making complete reparation to the holy and righteous throne of God.
But notice carefully what price He paid. If the just and ultimate penalty for sin is eternal torment, then Jesus can never be the Savior of anyone! He is not being eternally tormented. Again, if the just and ultimate penalty for sin is extermination, then Jesus can never be the Savior of anyone! He was not exterminated. Instead, He died for all; and, He is now in the glory as our advocate!