Apologetics - Universal Reconciliation > Word Studies

revelation 1:6 , about Jesus ?

(1/13) > >>

erwan:
is it sure that the "him" in : to him be the power and the glory..."
is about Jesus and not the father ?
is the greek clear ?

jaareshiah:
At Revelation 1:6, it says that "he (Jesus Christ) made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father—yes, to him ("him", Greek autos, meaning "the reflexive pronoun self " or pointing toward oneself ) be the glory and the might forever. Amen." This Greek word is also used in the same Scripture, with relation to "God and Father" that is rendered as "his" in the reflexive sense, so that it properly reads "his God and Father". This Greek word is used thousands of times in the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly called the New Testament), as at Matthew 2:2, 4:3, 4:6, 8, 9, 10.

ded2daworld:
Sharing the Godhead, it is virtually irrelevant whether the "HIM" is Jesus or His Father. "For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, and through him to reconcile to himself all things" All of God dwelt in the physical body of Christ.
Is Christs physical body still present? Yes. After his death he showed Thomas the scars from the nails, and about 25 years after his resurrection, Paul said, "there is one God and one mediator between God and man, the man Jesus Christ."
(This verse is also used to prove Jesus was not 1/2 man and 1/2 God but that he was 100% God and 100% man.)
God the Father gives Jesus everything.

jaareshiah:
The problem with "sharing the Godhead" is that no such thing exists. The trinity doctrine teaches that Jesus is God, but the Bible teaches that Jesus is "the only-begotten Son of God" (John 3:16), not God nor "God the Son". The word "Godhead" is what the King James Bible has rendered from the Greek words theion at Acts 17:29, theiotes at Romans 1:20 and theotetos at Colossians 2:9.

The Greek word theion (G2304) is properly rendered as "divine" , while theiotes (G2305) is properly rendered as "divinity, divine nature" and theotetos (G2320) as "deity, divinity".(Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament; Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible)

Hence, at Revelation 1:6, the statement is true that says of Jesus, concerning those chosen by his Father, Jehovah God for the "heavenly calling", that "he made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father—yes, to him be the glory and the might forever." Jesus thus has a "God and Father", for the apostle Paul wrote to the Ephesian congregation: "I continue mentioning you in my prayers, that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give you a spirit of wisdom and of revelation in the accurate knowledge of him."(Eph 1:16, 17)

And Jesus, through the Revelation given to John in about 96 C.E., said to the Laodicean congregation: "And to the angel of the congregation in La·o·di·ce´a write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God."(Rev 3:14; 2:18)

ded2daworld:
IN the beginning was the word and the word was with God and was God.
Pretty clear unless you read the jehovah witness biased translation.

Navigation

[0] Message Index

[#] Next page

Go to full version