Recently I have noted a "dissing" of the KJV version of the Bible, as if it deserves disrespect for any good reason... I would like to discuss TRANSLATIONS and why you might use one or the other... and if you use SEVERAL in making your points, the reasons one might have for doing so...
I don't wish to establish the KJV as "the" version in this topic... rather, I wonder why so many would disrespect anyone for using it? Comments such as: ..."KJV people"... :omg:
In studying the "WORD
", ...which "Word" does-ya use?
It is my opinion that NONE of the versions are "error-free"... so which to use?
Some will have an explanation "WHY" they use this one
or that one
Some use one to make a point here, and another to substanciate their belief elsewhere (a different version)... Why is that?
To me, the many different English translated versions are just displaying men, sometimes in sincerity, just confusing the issue... There is one excuse or another used, but I say, if GOD is one's guide, does it even matter which one one uses...
I can hear it already... "so which do you
use willie, and WHY
...So glad you asked!
I use the KJV @ all times... That way, I don't need to backtrack and remember which version I used to base my current viewpoint on a given subject... This does not mean that the KJV is any "better" or worse than others... for ALL of them are works of translation by men... What it does mean, is that I dont have to use one version to prove this belief and another to prove that one...
Another reason that I use the KJV is the comparitive tool, Strongs... which isolates each word in the Hebrew and Greek, and verses committed to memory that might not be remembered by Chapter & verse, can be quickly found using a KEYWORD in the text...
I might point out that RELIGIOUS biases of the translators are within ALL of them...
For example, ...I recently had a discussion about "HELL" on another forum, and in Is 45:7
... many replying to my objection noted that the word "RA" meant "CALAMITY", using another translation (cant remember which it was)... I then went to the version they quoted, and in every other instance I looked up (15 or 20) other than Is 45:7
, "RA" was translated "EVIL" in that translation!
How about you? Which version do you find most compatible with your study methods? Do you have a particular reason for using it (other than getting rid of "thee's & thou's")?