I'm not proposing anything. I'm just trying to figure out how it works. I've been following your posts.
You point out that Paul receives grace from faith leading to obedience. And later, obedience leads to works.
So the starting point is faith--which is counterintuitive, but I think that is correct. That is why James says that faith without works is dead, because faith inevitably leads to works.
Can we both agree then that Faith without works has no profit whatsoever as James shows? If that be the case then can we see that Faith with works (His works - not our own or those of the law), provide access to Grace?
Yes, James is telling us that if we have faith it will lead to certain things--the end point of which is works.
But, in following your posts, there seems to be a progression, that is, one comes before the other--are you not meaning to say that?
That's why I put it in that order: faith-->grace--->obedience--->works.
In other words, you are not going to have works without the others preceding it first?
I'm not sure how you then conclude that works access grace, though. It seems grace comes directly from faith.
Maybe you mean that works prove
access to grace?
I'm not trying to be difficult, just trying to understand.