1 Corinthians 15:20-28 questions

[beartheweak]

I was reading this link: http://www.tentmaker.org/books/EternalDeath.html and I came across two things that appear to be a bit of a stretch of scripture. Can you guys help me figure out a better interpretation? I will first post the paragraph I have disagreements with, then I will list my two disagreements.

1 Corinthians 15:22-28 teaches that there are three classes of orders that will be made alive. First, Christ, the first fruit. The word "first fruit" is singular in the Greek, not first fruits plural as in the King James Version. Second, they that are Christ's at His coming (Greek, parousia, appearing). This class includes all the Christians dead or alive. (See 1 Thess. 4:13-18) The third class is referred to as "then cometh the end." This includes the residue of all mankind who died in Adam. This is clearly taught in 1 Cor. 15:22-28. Therefore, these scriptures teach that all mankind who die in Adam will be made alive in Christ and I repeat, this is not resurrection. Unfortunately, many translations put a period between the second and third order of being made alive. The Greek does not have a period here. (1 Cor. 15:23,24) It is supplied by some translators.

1) I agree that the Greek word used for "first fruit" is singular, but that doesn't mean it is only speaking of one person. It could mean to use "first fruit" as a group of people- sort of like how someone would classify "the wicked" as a group of people. The reason why I am leaning toward "first fruit" referencing a group, and not a single person (Jesus), is because if Jesus were one of the acclaimed three classes (see above quote from article) to be resurrected (or given eternal life) then we are admitting that Jesus is somehow in need of being resurrected right now. Is this a legitimate question or am I missing something? I guess one could say that Jesus already was resurrected, but it seems as though Paul is speaking of the end times, not a chronological account through history spanned by over 2000 years.

2) When the author says:

The third class is referred to as "then cometh the end."

Here is 1 Cor. 15:24: "then cometh the end when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God even the Father when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power".

To claim that "the end" is a group of people really seems to me to be a stretch. The Greek word used there is "telos" for "end". Never in scripture is that personified to reference a person or group. It always seems to be used as describing something along the lines of being "the last event" of something ( http://biblesuite.com/greek/telos_5056.htm ). Additionally, the Greek word "hotan" is used which translates as "when" which also seems to me to force "end" to be read as a period of time/event. This would be kind of like Paul using an unclear metaphor since he referenced the first two groups, Christ (or perhaps the dead believers) and Christ's (perhaps alive) believers. Why wouldn't Paul also just say "and the third group are all the rest of the people" if he really meant "the end" as a third group?

Do you guys have any wisdom regarding a better understanding of these scriptures? Thanks!

[Lazarus Short]

Sometimes, a different translation can shed light on a problem.  I pulled out my Ferrar Fenton Version, and it opened up to the very page on which was I Corinthians 15:20-28.  Could that mean something?

Here's verse 20:  "...Christ has been raised from the dead, a Fore-runner of the sleepers."

and verse 24:  "Then will be the perfection, when He delivers up the Kingdom to the God and Father..."

In these verses, I see only one resurrection mentioned, in verse 21:  "For since by man death exists, by man a resurrection from death also exists." 

You will have to look elsewhere to figure it all out.  God hides things here and there, so we have to read, read, read, to find it, and we have our minds renewed in the process.

For what it's worth, I was taught this:

The first resurrection is of the overcomer believers, at the coming of Christ.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the barley harvest festival.

The second resurrection is of the non-overcomer believers, at the end of the millennium.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the wheat harvest festival.

The third resurrection is of the non-overcomer non-believers, at some other future date.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the grape harvest festival.

[reFORMer]

After granting each of us to be in our own exclusive place, I have considered it to refer to 4 general categories: 

1 Cor. 15^23-24

"But every man in his own order:  1.) Christ 2.) the firstfruits; 3.) afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.  4.) Then cometh the end..."

It begins with stipulating "each man in his own classification."  Nobody is the same as somebody else.  We are all unique, even though there are several broad categories, or ranks.

[marie glen]

Sometimes, a different translation can shed light on a problem.  I pulled out my Ferrar Fenton Version, and it opened up to the very page on which was I Corinthians 15:20-28.  Could that mean something?

Here's verse 20:  "...Christ has been raised from the dead, a Fore-runner of the sleepers."

and verse 24:  "Then will be the perfection, when He delivers up the Kingdom to the God and Father..."

The first resurrection is of the overcomer believers, at the coming of Christ.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the barley harvest festival.

The second resurrection is of the non-overcomer believers, at the end of the millennium.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the wheat harvest festival.

The third resurrection is of the non-overcomer non-believers, at some other future date.  It is foreshadowed in the OT by the grape harvest festival.

hi! do you have a verse for a 3rd resurrection? I know at the end of the age, there's two reapings.. those by the one like a Son of man on a cloud, as John saw it in vision (from a distance?) and another by an angel with a sharp sickle (allegory) where the clusters of the vine are thrown into the winepress (code for Har-megeddon) (rev 14:14-20 part of one of 4 bk of rev inserts)

1st resurrection at Jesus' return: 1 thess 4:13-17; 1 corinth 15:20-23;49-58; mt 24:29-31; 2 thess 1:7,8; rev 20:4,5b,6

2nd resurrection: rev 20:5a(7-10);11-14

  thanks..  .....wait a minute! I think the answers in the 1st and original post! (dah?)

[marie glen]

I was reading this link: http://www.tentmaker.org/books/EternalDeath.html and I came across two things that appear to be a bit of a stretch of scripture. Can you guys help me figure out a better interpretation? I will first post the paragraph I have disagreements with, then I will list my two disagreements.

1 Corinthians 15:22-28 teaches that there are three classes of orders that will be made alive. First, Christ, the first fruit. The word "first fruit" is singular in the Greek, not first fruits plural as in the King James Version. Second, they that are Christ's at His coming (Greek, parousia, appearing). This class includes all the Christians dead or alive. (See 1 Thess. 4:13-18) The third class is referred to as "then cometh the end." This includes the residue of all mankind who died in Adam. This is clearly taught in 1 Cor. 15:22-28. Therefore, these scriptures teach that all mankind who die in Adam will be made alive in Christ and I repeat, this is not resurrection. Unfortunately, many translations put a period between the second and third order of being made alive. The Greek does not have a period here. (1 Cor. 15:23,24) It is supplied by some translators.

1) I agree that the Greek word used for "first fruit" is singular, but that doesn't mean it is only speaking of one person. It could mean to use "first fruit" as a group of people- sort of like how someone would classify "the wicked" as a group of people. The reason why I am leaning toward "first fruit" referencing a group, and not a single person (Jesus), is because if Jesus were one of the acclaimed three classes (see above quote from article) to be resurrected (or given eternal life) then we are admitting that Jesus is somehow in need of being resurrected right now. Is this a legitimate question or am I missing something? I guess one could say that Jesus already was resurrected, but it seems as though Paul is speaking of the end times, not a chronological account through history spanned by over 2000 years.

2) When the author says:

The third class is referred to as "then cometh the end."

Here is 1 Cor. 15:24: "then cometh the end when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God even the Father when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power".

To claim that "the end" is a group of people really seems to me to be a stretch. The Greek word used there is "telos" for "end". Never in scripture is that personified to reference a person or group. It always seems to be used as describing something along the lines of being "the last event" of something ( http://biblesuite.com/greek/telos_5056.htm ). Additionally, the Greek word "hotan" is used which translates as "when" which also seems to me to force "end" to be read as a period of time/event. This would be kind of like Paul using an unclear metaphor since he referenced the first two groups, Christ (or perhaps the dead believers) and Christ's (perhaps alive) believers. Why wouldn't Paul also just say "and the third group are all the rest of the people" if he really meant "the end" as a third group?

I'm thinking I have to agree with you, I'm just not getting it! So I went over to "Biblegateway" dot com and grabbed the verses:

[these verses, to me, sound like phases]

1 Corinthians 15:22-28

Young's Literal Translation (YLT) - http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Cor.%2015:22-28&version=KJV;NRSV;CEV;NASB;YLT - snipped/cut, wasn't so clear.. cept this 1st verse

22 for even as in Adam all die, so also in the Christ all shall be made alive, 23 and each in his proper order,

 
1 Corinthians 15:22-28

Contemporary English Version (CEV)

"22 Adam brought death to all of us, and Christ will bring life to all of us. 23 But we must each wait our turn. Christ was the first to be raised to life, and his people will be raised to life when he returns. 24 Then after Christ has destroyed all powers and forces, the end will come, and he will give the kingdom to God the Father." [oh! 1st, Jesus was resurrected, then 2nd, the resurrection of all believers at His return, and 3rd, another raising to incorruption and immortality at the 'end' when ALL things are made new.. after the millennium and its purpose, and what is commonly called judgment day, and its purpose]

"25 Christ will rule until he puts all his enemies under his power, 26 and the last enemy he destroys will be death. 27 When the Scriptures say that he will put everything under his power, they don't include God. It was God who put everything under the power of Christ. 28 After everything is under the power of God's Son, he will put himself under the power of God, who put everything under his Son's power. Then God will mean everything to everyone." 

[Lazarus Short]

hi! do you have a verse for a 3rd resurrection? I know at the end of the age, there's two reapings.. those by the one like a Son of man on a cloud, as John saw it in vision (from a distance?) and another by an angel with a sharp sickle (allegory) where the clusters of the vine are thrown into the winepress (code for Har-megeddon) (rev 14:14-20 part of one of 4 bk of rev inserts)

1st resurrection at Jesus' return: 1 thess 4:13-17; 1 corinth 15:20-23;49-58; mt 24:29-31; 2 thess 1:7,8; rev 20:4,5b,6

2nd resurrection: rev 20:5a(7-10);11-14

  thanks..  .....wait a minute! I think the answers in the 1st and original post! (dah?)

Marie, I think the verse you referenced (Revelation 14:14-20) is the answer.  First, this harvest of grapes is over-ripe, past its best, and less to be desired.  Second, this harvest is thrown into the winepress, not just of God, but of God's anger.  God is NOT happy with this vintage and harvest.  I see these as the non-overcomer non-believers, you might say, the spiritual riff-raff of this world.  They will be saved, but they will come into as good an inheritance as those in the first two resurrections.  Other than that, I can not say.

[marie glen]

I think you're right.. to die in one's sins will not be as joyful of a resurrection[#3] as [#1]Christ's or [#2] the resurrection of all believers at His coming.. But I'm thinking eventually it will catch up..? 

[reFORMer]

I see at least 4 orders...

"But every man in his own order:  1.) Christ 2.) the firstfruits; 3.) afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.  4.) Then cometh the end..." (1 Cor. 15^23-24)

It begins with stipulating "each man in his own classification."  Nobody is the same as somebody else.  We are all unique, even though there are several broad categories, or ranks.  It will be glorious when all mankind is included and we each function in our places, related to God and one another.  The Spirit is working to bring all thing into unity and re-head them with Christ.

"...in all wisdom and prudence making known to us the secret of His will (in accord with His delight, which He purposed in Him) to have an administration of the complement of the eras, to head up all in the Christ -- both that in the heavens and that on the earth -- in Him in Whom our lot was cast also, being designated beforehand according to the purpose of the One Who is operating all in accord with the counsel of His will..." (Eph 1^8-11 Concordant Literal Version)

This is the way the KJV has vs 10:  "That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ..."

This making all things one and subjecting all to Him as Head is working behind the veil right now; but, it will become manifest, not only in promissory tokens as now, but in everything everywhere.  Do not underestimate God the Spirit.  It may be soon the next glorious phase of this comes into operation.  Remaining connected to the vine the fruit continues to develop until fully ripe.  What is within us will be revealed when our obedience to Him is complete.  Resurrection has to do with receiving a permanent physical attribute that is born of God and a simulation of Him.  We are not only regenerated spirits in the heavenlies, we are entities with deathless cosmic embodiment.  Our celestial and terrestrial aspects must come to liberty, ruling throughout the dimensions in which we exist, not by force, but by superior nature that brings the lesser into alignment with all good.  It is important that we recognize the connection this has with our becoming incorruptible.

[mplsfitter539]

Marie, I think the verse you referenced (Revelation 14:14-20) is the answer.  First, this harvest of grapes is over-ripe, past it's best, and less to be desired.  Second, this harvest is thrown into the winepress, not just of God, but of God's anger.  God is NOT happy with this vintage and harvest.  I see these as the non-overcomer non-believers, you might say, the spiritual riff-raff of this world.  They will be saved, but they will come into as good as inheritance as those in the first two resurrections.  Other than that, I can not say.

That's what I'm talkin about   

[Elan]

It is indeed refreshing to read of effort being applied to understand the scripture and 1 Corinthians 15 in particular. I understand verse 20 through verse 28 as parenthetical to the context flow, a sidebar if you will, thus helping to provide a contextual beginning and end.

There is a widespread tendency to view the classes in verse 23 as pertaining to a resurrection sequence but they most certainly are not. The action (verb) that is applicable to verse 23 is found in the last word of verse 22. The Greek word is rooted in zOopoieO, but in this verse it is in the future tense ( zOopoiEthEsontai). KJV translates it as "shall be made alive", while the Concordant Literal Version as "shall be vivified". Either way, the classes detailed in verse 23, and maybe verse 24, pertain to future vivification, not resurrection. I believe the reason for vivification rather than resurrection is: vivification does not require a physically dead body, resurrection requires such a condition. Vivification can and does occur even while we are yet living. If you follow zOopoieO along in scripture you will discover this to be the situation, consider starting at about John 5:21. 

In verse 20 Christ is risen from the dead, additionally He is identified as the "firstfruit" of them that slept, a particular class of "the dead". Christ has been resurrected. There is no future resurrection and/or vivification for the man Christ Jesus.

In verse 21 a contrast between "death by man" and "resurrection by man" lays the groundwork for the forthcoming sequence of vivifications. The head of each creation of humanity is stated, then further identified in verse 22. In verse 22 a comparison between "all" in Adam die(present tense) and "all" in Christ "shall be made alive" (future tense). The new humanity in Christ commenced at His resurrection, this is reference point for the future tense. 

Verse 23 provides the sequence of vivification of the "all" in verse 22. These vivifications occur after His resurrection, thus the future tense use of (zOopoieO), in an orderly fashion, not by willy-nilly or all at once. Each is vivified in particular order/class (tagma-only here in the new testament).

Verse 23 indicates three "orders", the first two orders/classes are "aparchE" and "christos" (firstfruit and anointed). These are simply two unadorned nouns. It is best to use "anointed" rather than "Christ" (see caveat # 4 below). Christ has no possible future tense vivification – He is currently alive, as "beartheweak" has rightly observed. That there is a class/order called "anointed" may cause some challenges to usual interpretation, but the text better supports "anointed". "AparchE" and "christos" are typically jammed together in such a way that produces a untenable contortion of the text, such is not necessary. In the Greek text the definite article in "Christ the firstfruits" (KJV) is not present. That there is no indication of a time factor separating these two classes simply means that they can run concurrent within a time frame (or at least with some overlap), or that the class "christos" can be vivified at most any time, without reference to another timed event.

"Afterward" (epeita), in verse 23, does introduce an element of time, duration is uncertain but sequence is sure. After the "aparchE" and "christos" (firstfruit and anointed) vivifications comes the next vivification and it is inextricably linked to "the coming" (parousia) of Him. Of whom? Of Christos, not christos. Jesus Christ has a (parousia), "the anointed" class does not, thus Christos, not christos. This is group three. 

Verse 24 is introduced with "then"(eita), a time factor. After the vivification related to His (parousia) then a final vivification occurs at "the end"(telos). This fourth group receives vivification "when" some other "end"(telos) events come to fruition as given through verse 28.

By the end of verse 28 the "all in all" will have been vivified.

A few caveats:
1) In the new testament firstfruit (aparchE) is always singular.
2) Vivification (zOopoieO) does not necessitate resurrection, nor vice versa. Examples of vivification without an accompanying resurrection: John 6:63 has "….the spirit that quickeneth…" and 2 Corinthians 3:6 "…. but the spirit giveth life." Examples of resurrection without vivification (zOopoieO): The resurrections of Lazarus in John 11 and of Tabitha in Acts 9. John 5:21 has Father raising the dead and quickening while the Son quickens without raising the dead.
3) It would seem that the "firstfruit" order found in 1 Corinthians 15:23 is currently operative, has been since His resurrection. See Romans 8:23 (… the firstfruit of the spirit); Romans 16:5 (… firstfruit of Achaia unto Christ.); 1 Corinthians 16:15 (… firstfruit of Achaia…); 2 Thessalonians 2:13 (instead of "beginning" read "firstfruit"). These all were vivified while they were living on earth and all have since died.
4) To determine if Christos should read "Christ" or "anointed" seems to be a contextual related determination, not textual. This is with the understanding that "Christ" means "anointed" whether translated as "Christ" or "anointed". Revelation 11:15 would have better understanding if "his Christ" were translated "His anointed", that is to say, "the Lord's anointed".


Study with verification

[Ken]

Hello beartheweak,

I have an article here that will answer all of your questions:

http://ernestlmartin.com/kingdomofgod-firstresurrection.htm

Be sure to read all of the hyperlinked articles, too.

Ken