The all- all things -everything
A question regarding Ephesians 1 and Colossians one
It seems to me that the teaching of UR cannot depend primarily on intricate and dogmatic positions about translation. Correct translation is an important issue, but when responding to people who wonder how God could let the gospel be so obscured by incorrect translation I simply tell them that UR can be easily demonstrated from any English translation. Concerning, "the all" as opposed to "all things", (or, "everything" if you need a one word rendering) the simple logic is this……. "the all" is the composite whole of creation. "things" is not there, but substitute "everything" and you have a suitable English word, because "the all", visible and invisible, earthly and heavenly, is composed of "everything"
The composite whole is "everything"(or "all things") in it and all parts that it is made up of. Even as all the atoms and molecules in the man are the man and the man is all the atoms and molecules, as well as the spirit and soul, parts of the whole that are visible and invisible, on earth and in heaven. In our language there are differences from Greek language so looking at the contextual usage is important, for instance
Mat 17:11 And He answered and said, "Elijah is coming and will restore "all things"
Clearly Elijah does not restore all things, i.e. "the all". What does he restore?
"the hearts of the children to the fathers and the hearts of the fathers to the children and the crooked paths straight and the high places low and a way prepared for the Lord". So "the all" referred to here is a subset within the totality of everything, a limited whole within the composite whole of creation.
It seems to me it is more important to demonstrate from Colossians 1 that the "all things"( pas; the all, all, everything) to be reconciled is the same "all things"(pas-everything) that was created through Him, over which He is preeminent, of which is "every"(pas, same word) creature, etc. You can show in simple English that it is the complete whole of creation that is being compared in the use of "all things". Then demonstrating that it is impossible for this same "all things" or "everything" to be "summed up" or "gathered together" into one in Christ, or, for 'God to be over all, in all, and through all' with any of it's parts/things/aspects burning in "hell" "forever". If "some things" burn forever then "all things" can't be "gathered together as one in Christ" and reconciled.
Then my position depends not on linguistics the average believer or seeker is not familiar with. It is there in simple English (and likewise in many other places). Then the translation door is opened as confirmation of simple contextual proofs, and the message is not left open for the proofs and debates of scholars over the languages of antiquity. I want to beware lest ofing seem too smug in having to "go to the Greek" at every point and make issues where none exist, both with people i agree with and even those i disagree with. Concerning this one issue tho,I have over time attempted to examine every usage of "pas" - "all things" "everything" "all"(as well as "every" {like in "every" creature in Col 1:15 and "every man"(Rev 22:18), "everyone" that hears(Mk 4:4, "every" word that proceeds(Mk 7:7)}. "The all"(pas) refers to the totality of the
subject set(men, words, creatures, etc) in each of those instances and many more. It occurs as a subset within the whole of creation very frequently. If there is some specific difference in the usage of "pas" in Colossians 1 and Ephesians 1 that is separate from the common usage in all those other places I have looked at…. I would like to be shown that, which is the question in my long winded statement.
