Yes. What has that got to do with whether or not Judas is or will be saved or if he will spend eternity in hell?
Are you claiming the latter?
When it was not popular I spoke of UR
I know that you believe in UR, which is why I didn't understand what the point was to your question.
It is not a question of what will ultimately happen but what Judas will endure when grace is no longer forbearing but that his purification will be the result of judgement passed.
What do you think of the following scripture?
Acts 1: 25 That he may take part of this ministry and apostleship, from which Judas by transgression fell, that he might go to his own place
Did Judas go to bed of roses?...... of course not!!..... He went to a place reserved for those who betray Jesus!
How do we betray Jesus........ simply put to call on the Lord for forgiveness of sins and then return to sin is betraying Jesus
Because the fact still remains Judas during the judgement appointed to him for his betrayal of Jesus will wish he had never been born........ at least according to the Scriptures that I have great confidence in.
Seems to me that Judas already wished he had never been born; or why else did he kill himself?
But let's look at Mar 14:21 in a few other translations:
(CLV) seeing that the Son of Mankind is indeed going away according as it is written concerning Him, yet woe to that man through whom the Son of Mankind is being given up! Ideal were it for Him if that man were not born!
(EB) Because, the Son of Man, indeed, goeth his way, - according as it is written concerning him; but alas! for that man, through whom the Son of Man is being delivered up, - Well for him, if that man, had not been born!
(LITV) Truly the Son of Man goes as it has been written concerning Him, but woe to that man through whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It were good for him if that man had never been born
(YLT) the Son of Man doth indeed go, as it hath been written concerning him, but woe to that man through whom the Son of Man is delivered up; good were it to him if that man had not been born
Good FOR WHOM
had never been born?
Good for Judas if Judas had never been born?
That seems to make sense in the way that KJV is worded. But it makes much less sense when you look at the wording of these other translations, as they don't seem to treat the "him" and the "that man" as references to the same person. Indeed, it wouldn't make sense to say "good were it to him (Judas) if that man (Judas) had not been born"
Certainly, the "that man" refer to Judas, as "that man" is mentioned twice and is in reference to him "through whom the Son of Man is delivered up" (Judas).
But who is the "him"? Judas
or the Son of Man
And, indeed, the CLV capitalized the "H" in "Him" making the "Him" refer to Christ (the Son of Man), rather than Judas.
That doesn't make it correct, but would it make sense to say that it would have been good for "the Son of Man" if "Judas" (through whom He would delivered up to be crucified) has not been born?
I believe that it does, particularly since it is "the Son of Man" (as opposed to "the Son of God") that is being referred to by Christ.
So did Judas go to "a bed of roses"? No he didn't. He went to his grave in shame.