willieH: Hi Quaesitor...

Welcome to Tentmaker!

Went to the 2nd link and I don't understand his use of 2 Peter 2:10 to justify free will, anybody?
I took a quick browse, and found early mentions of 2 Pet 2:10 (in item #4 & #5)
Here are the "items" referencing
2 Pet 2:10:
4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love? God loves all of His creation. But all have sinned. God cannot be in the presence of sin. Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33) Absolutely false. God loves all of His creation (John 3:16, 1John 2:2) so much that He sent His Son to die on the cross for our sins, even while we were are still sinners! Mankind sinned. God cannot sin. The problem is man and his sinful nature. Because they can choose between good and evil(2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will(2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
The person writing these [IMO] is DISINVOLVED with
reason concerning
2 Pet 2:10 -- and fails to address Scripture elsewhere which notes that ALL MEN are SINNERS because GOD has
declared (decided and concluded) they shall be --
Rom 3:23 -- Psalm 14:1-3 -- Rom 3:10-12The problem begins in
Item #4... the deduction is made that
"GOD cannot be in the presence of sin"...
This
statement is:
(1) -- UNBIBLICAL (no
BIBLICAL reference is given to establish this
statement, for there are none -- if you know of one, let me know

)
(2) -- Contrary to the
WORD which notes that GOD is
EVERYWHERE (omni
PRESENT) --
Psalm 139:8 -- Pro 15:11 -- and that ALL that exists, finds its particular EXISTENCE --
IN HIM and
BY HIM --
Col 1:16 -- Acts 17:28The author begins in
Item #4 by laying a false foundation (that
"God cannot be in the presence of sin", and then builds upon it in
Item #5... by noting the "SELF WILL" of man, as something which is completely disassociated with GOD and His doings...
(3) -- In
Item #5... the conclusion is made by the author, that "SELF WILL" means:
"self willed means self willed against GOD's will" Eph 1:11 -- clearly notes that GOD is WORKING
all things... and those [all] things are done according to the advisements (counsel) of
HIS OWN WILL...

"ALL THINGS" does not
disinclude ANYTHING. And the statement that HE IS WORKING them... notes HIS INVOLVEMENT in them, not DISASSOCIATION due to the state in which HE DECLARED they would be [SINFUL]... for HE CONCLUDED
ALL in
UNBELIEF --
Rom 11:32 -- and because His
WORD declares that "whatsoever is NOT OF FAITH, IS SIN" --
Rom 14:23 ...further means that
His conclusion of UNBELIEF in all men
founds their SINFULNESS.
