willieH: Hi Seth...

Never said it was... The HEAD is a MEMBER of the BODY
Romans 7:23
But I see another law in my members (Gk - melos), warring against the law of my mind (Gk nous), and bringing me (Gk - me) into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
melos
a member, limb: a member of the human body
This is selective agreement to definition... you pick the "definition" of the word MELOS which best suits your theological belief/vision... Just as relgious translators pick GRAVE or HELL (depending upon which suits them best), as the definition noted in Strongs -- of SHEOL...
"Member" by English definition means a PART of something... the MIND is PART of the BODY... without the MIND, the body (including the brain) is a mass of MEAT which has no "DIRECTING member"... so the MIND is the MOST IMPORTANT "member"

There is no designation of LIMB in the english definitions of the word in the dictionary, which compromise what I am saying of the mind as a MEMBER...
You said that the MIND is a member. Therefore indeed you are saying it is a limb.
No I am NOT! You are concluding ME, with YOUR MIND, not mine. In communication, many words have multiple applications for the same word which are UNRELATED at times.
You are putting words in my mouth Seth. Because one of the defintions of GAY is applied to someone HAPPY, does not THEREFORE in that application, mean the person is HOMOSEXUAL...
Many times words spoken can be truthful, yet inaccurately display truth -- such as a 10yr old, referring to his 22 year old teacher as, ...OLD... The teacher is in fact OLD-ER than the observer, but in no terms ELDERLY as the kid, within his words, might imply about the teacher which is not present.
Language is a tricky thing bro... in my life, I have had a few LIVING experiences (isolated within the use of foreign language) that were OUTSIDE English... and learned that RESIDENT MEANING, DIALECT, REGION, and ERA can affect words in ANY language...
When one is giving a "definition" of one word in a foreign language (such as Greek), and absolutely deduces its meaning to be thus "in English"... a dire error is committed... It is not wrong to note a potential or possible definition into English, but erroneous to maintain that definition as ABSOLUTE.
MOST languages on earth do NOT convey EXACTLY into English, the meaning of a given word or phrase.
I once had a Mexican friend (with whom I lived in a Spanish speaking environment for 10 months)... He told a joke in Spanish to his dad, and his dad CRACKED UP BAD!

-- I was yet to be familiar with Spanish, so I urged my friend to translate it into English so I could laugh as well... to which he said that it wasn't
funny IN ENGLISH. He then told me the joke IN ENGLISH, and it wasn't the least bit funny.
My point is, that using Strong's is a good basic reference to give us an insight to Greek or Hebrew, but claiming those "insights" as absolute is misleading, ...even those who fervently study these languages, do not KNOW all the "in's and out's" which can affect meaning... especially with so much time removed from the original era.
As I said, DIALECTS (which can and DO affect spelling and pronunciation particular to a given person and or grouping) REGION (which can affect spelling and pronunciation to a given AREA) and ERA (which can affect spelling, pronunciation AND application)... are ALL intangibles that cannot be PINPOINTED by anyone other than GOD.
So to have semantic arguements over wordings IN ENGLISH which do NOT make an EXACT transfer from Greek or Hebrew... is an exercise it futility...
I believe that it is the APPLICATION of GOD's leading along with REASON, shall avail to the seeker enlightenment as GOD WILLS that enlightenment, to be experienced.
Not the claim that the ENGLISH translation of Greek and Hebrew words are ABSOLUTE, which are in all likelihood, a partial look at a given word traversing from ANCIENT times... into this modern day...
Not only that, you are mistaking the MIND for the HEAD.
Again another assumption of YOUR
MIND...

I am not "
mistaking" anything. You have assumed that your viewpoint on this subject is "correct", and then, ...by comparing my observation to YOURS --
using yours AS the MEASURE, you deduce mine as "
mistaken"...
This is the common (failing) method of most THEOLOGIANS and observers of the
WORD of God... Instead of acknowledging that any information BELIEVED by a sinful human being can be FALLIBLE or "VEILED" in proximity to TRUTH, you assume that YOUR OBSERVATION is TRUE, and deduce all OPPOSING observations as "mistaken" by comparing them to YOURS! Craig was famous for doing this, even when LOGIC was applied to the arguement.
It is a given to those who truly seek TRUTH, to humbly KNOW that it is only GOD which can LIFT the VEIL on any given subject... and that when 2 points can be proven using His
WORD, that after a certain amount of exchange occurs when there is no leaning done by either party, that it becomes obvious that GOD does not intend on revealing which of the observations (if either) might be the TRUTH.
It is in this wisdom, that I must note the possibility that you might be holding the TRUE observation of this subject, but until GOD changes the "member" called my mind (heh-heh)... I shall remain where I stand concerning this subject... while I continue to probe it into His
WORD...
You go on to break down the "Head" and fail to see that in the construct of
CHRIST, He is the HEAD... not just a quantity of "meat", but the TOP member of the BODY noted as the HEAD of a body which is ENTIRELY spiritual...
Is the HEAD of the church ...MEAT, Seth? Or is it the MEMBER of the "church" to which all other MEMBERS look to LEAD? And that MEMBER is
NOT physical.
The head is made of many physical parts, the brain included, which is why it is used as a PHYSICAL representations of the SPIRITUAL makeup of the church.
Paul does several things there. He destinguishes the MEMBER (limbs) where sin resides, from the law in our MINDS
You see bro... this (at least to me) is an UNCONVINCING arguement. For SIN can occur, WITHOUT ANY ENACTING of the disobedience PHYSICALLY, as
CHRIST noted:
Matt 5:27 --
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, thou shalt not commit adultery [sexual relations enacted outside marraige]
Matt 5:27 --
But I say unto you, that whosoever LOOKETH upon a women to lust after her hat COMMITTED ADULTERY with her ALREADY in his HEART...To "look" after a women in LUST, is done with the MEMBER of the MIND... for the EYE is just a TOOL under the DIRECTION of the MIND, which is being MISUSED... It is NOT the fault of the EYE, it is the fault of the MIND, for the MIND
directs what the EYE does or does not "look upon"...
Part of the "body of this death" is the NATURAL MIND which listens to the beckoning of the FLESH, Seth...
No WillieH, our minds are distinguishable from our Flesh, which is why our minds can be spiritual but our Flesh cannot be spiritual.
I just explained opposition to this statement, try reading it...

The CARNAL MIND is NOT something that can become SPIRITUAL... it must be RE-Created Seth... Just as the BODY in Resurrection shall be RE-Created... The "MIND" must be BORN AGAIN...
FLESH and BLOOD are portions of TIME concerning Man... as IS his MIND in the NATURAL state... You and I could argue this continually... and neither get a step further. Just as YOU or I might argue
CHRIST with a JEW... Or the Salvation of ALL with
Matt Slick --

I must return to EVE... If what you say is SO... then EVE had SIN in her members (body members) before she "sinned" in her MIND...
CHRIST was born of a SINNER (Mary), and no matter how you argue it... He had the SAME FLESH as do we... which YOU claim to have SIN residing IN IT.
So He therefore had SINFUL flesh... according to your observation of SIN being in the MEMBERS of the BODY, and the MIND, a separate NON-MEMBER.
Sorry Seth... but no matter how long you speak this, it remains as GARBLE to me... I'll stick with the BODY as SINLESS until it becomes AWARE of SIN... for SIN is NOT a physical thing it is a SPIRITUAL thing...
It is MISUSE of the BODY by the MIND which has been TEMPTED by the NATURAL DESIRES of the BODY, which produces SIN, as noted in
Matt 5:27-28 above.
This is YOUR vision Seth... CHRIST did not "deliver us" from LUST... He delivers us from SIN... caused by LUST.
No, he delivers us from THE BODY OF DEATH, by CONVERTING OUR MINDS, so that we don't have to feel lust.
Galatians 5
And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts (epithumia). If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
Seeing that, do you still say that Christ does not deliver us from lust and affection of the flesh?
I do not argue that we are delivered of the Lust which TEMPTS us, as well as the SIN produced by it...

What I argue with is "YOUR contention", that states that SIN is present in the body TO BEGIN WITH...
"haughty"? ...wow! Look who is talking! Is the tantrum over, or can I expect more as I go along in this answer?
WillieH, you are simply imposing your emotions on my words. I am not having a tantrum. LOL.
Seth, the word "haughty" is a subliminal name-calling effort. I have not been "arrogant" or "proud" with you... I have presented an argument against your present position, to which you react with such terminology by trying to apply it to me...

...I see this as uncalled for... I have stated no such things of you... and if by chance I did (which I do not recall)... I apologize... for it is not by "name calling" that we shall prosper in conversation... rather, by presenting our beliefs and let GOD's
WORD decide which of the two better lines up with what is stated overall, and that contains REASON within as well... As we are invited to
REASON with Him --
Isaiah 1:18 If you believe a given thing then express it... but when you tell me -- "willieH -- Sorry, but the head is not a member - " ...then you are endeavoring to TEACH me...
LOL, more judgment of my underlying motive. Turn the finger to yourself. Maybe you never condidered the fact that you are imposing your assumption of my motives on my words.
No judgment Seth, just observation... just as I do not "impose" the Salvation of ALL upon an ET believer, ...and I do not IMPOSE upon you my position here... If you are "flat-out" saying that I am
MISTAKEN -- which you DID above... you are therefore CORRECTING... and endeavoring to sit in the "teacher's chair" and wear the "teacher's hat"...

I do not use such terminology... I believe what I believe, and state it as best as I am able...

That it does not "match-up" to yours is irrlevant to me... I do not seek to align myself with anyone but GOD... Though it is nice to find like minds... it is only the REWARD of alignment with the
WORD which can bring
PEACE...
I am at
PEACE with where I am presently, Seth...

It is not wrong to TEACH Seth... I have just let you know that ...I... am observant enough to see:
(1) and note you are a teacher
(2) that you aspire to do so, as evidenced by your site
(3) that you not only strongly believe your stance but are well able to present it
(4) that it does not RING TRUE to me, therefore your effort to TEACH concerning me, is in vain...
Note carefully what I said. I am not endeavoring to teach YOU. Those who I teach, I do so from my site, about UR. Here, I learn. In fact I have learned many things in this thread alone. In this thread I am not attempting to teach, just to present my opinion. Again, maybe take a look to see if you are assuming my intentions and ASK me if that is my intention. Then, in love, I could TELL YOU what my intentions are, rather than YOU telling ME, what is going on in my head.
I think that in the most subliminal ways, bro... you are fooling yourself (no offense)... Within this conversation, especially in the latest replies, ...you seek to CORRECT me (which is what a "teacher" does)... you called me "haughty" which (as I see it) was unnecessary (which is a
character observation)...
I have YET to say what is "going on in your HEAD"... I can only observe your words as evidence of that activity... And have so reacted to
them, as that which IS going on in "your head"...

He was THEREFORE our brother, as it is mentioned in the Scriptures -- Rom 8:29 -- the FIRSTBORN AMONG MANY BRETHREN... He was WITHOUT SIN... but He was NOT withheld from the PROCESS in which SIN enters the experience... THAT is what He DEFEATED while in the flesh of man...
And being without sin is HOW Christ was NOT like US. He was APART from sin, which is why He had no lust in him contrary to His Father's law.
That again, is just a restated opinion... I see
CHRIST as SIN-LESS as well, but concerning TEMPTATION, ...it occured with
CHRIST,
AS it does with all other MEN, of which
CHRIST is numbered.
THAT is what makes Him SO SPECIAL above all other MEN, bro Seth!
What Christ was withheld from is SIN, being without it in his members, and being without SIN in his members to produce LUST.
This is plainly CONTRADICTORY Seth...
If (as YOU claim) MEN have SIN in their "members" and it is that present "SIN" which births "LUST" (desire)... then
CHRIST, being a MAN, had that same scenario present in Himself... as He was born of an EARTHLY mother!
There is no Scripture which states that His "members) were positionally WITHHELD from "SIN" which proposes LUST, which brings forth SIN...

-- Please note the verse(s) which state this...
Try selling this contradiction elsewhere bro, ...I don't buy it...

I do not think that a child (which is the equivalent of CHRIST in mind), really "struggles" with temptation... Often they unknowingly just jump one way or the other -- into it or flee from it...
I didn't say all CHILDREN struggle with sin. ALL MEN all men are carnal sold under sin. Christ obviously was not if was without sin to be enslaved to. THAT would be one way that Christ was UNLIKE his brothers.
Really drawing at straws now, bro... He was LIKE us in all ways except ONE... He was WITHOUT SIN... Why? because He listened CONTINUALLY to the VOICE of GOD, instead of the VOICE of the (tempting desires of) FLESH.
The struggle you imply that men have... is due to their past experience WITH SIN... They have already fallen... which CHRIST never did... so they battle with their "history" as well as in the moment of "now"...
And their struggle is not Christ's struggle since Christ was without sin. If all men have fallen Christ never fell. THAT is a big difference. Christ being without sin, means that no lust could be borne in him because, as you say "Christ did not have sin in his members."
More "straw drawing" and CONTRADICTORY statements... You say MEN have SIN in the MEMBERS which causes LUST to arise, and even though
CHRIST is noted as a MAN, and no such DIFFERENCE to other men is noted as you suggest... (i.e. that He did not have this "alleged" SIN in HIS members)... you contradict yourself by saying "SIN" is a characteristic of FLESHLY MEMBERS... which He INDEED had... born from a SINFUL human being.
That makes Him EXEMPT from the process of Romans 7, which means no lust could be borne in him contrary to God's law.
No such EXEMPTION is noted, other than in the words of YOUR OPINION...
See it as you will... positionally, He was a MAN as are we, but also positionally, He was parented by both the HOLY (YHVH) and the UNHOLY (Mary)... whereas we are each parented by 2 UNHOLY (sinful) parents...
Mary was not in his mind. His father was. That is the whole point.
That is your assertion... which I disagree with...

The WHOLE POINT, is that He came upon this earth, IN THE FLESH which causes man to fall to its desires (not to its SIN), ...and OVERCAME those "desires" which translated into SIN-LESS-NESS...
Your vision does not note Him OVERCOMING anything...


bro...
