Author Topic: 1 John question  (Read 3119 times)

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

Barry DuPont

  • Guest
Re: 1 John question
« Reply #25 on: November 24, 2009, 04:18:38 PM »
Yes Zeek. "mammon" (the economy of the old covenant in the precedence of types and figures) inevitably attaches itself to the self defined self.

Sin consciousness likewise as part of that economic system where love without condition is not known. Sin consciousness inevitably produces a "something to prove" phenomenon as it creates the scaffolding in the formation or construct of the self defined self. This does not assist in the direction of simply loving one's neighbor as one's self, because one's self always gets conditions put on it. What works inwardly then works outwardly.
The law brings forth wrath.

What works outwarkly works inwardly and the consience is condemned.
Rom 2:1 Therefore thou art inexcusable, O man, whosoever thou art that judgest: for wherein thou judgest another, thou condemnest thyself; for thou that judgest doest the same things.  
Rom 2:2   But we are sure that the judgment of God is according to truth against them which commit such things.  
Rom 2:3   And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shalt escape the judgment of God?  
Rom 2:4   Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?  
Rom 2:5   But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;