Don't tell that to any feminist activists, bro, or you might catch some heat for it.
Feminists are so cute :-)
Some people just see problems were they are not.
"I'm yours forever" is something both men and women say to each other when in love. Are they making statements of slavery and ownership? Maybe someone from another culture would assume so; but for English speaking people it just means "I really, really, really love you."
This thread started out as NT books being written in Hebrew. Later the thread became an idiom thread. Maybe I should have started a new one....
Anyway it serves as proof that literal translation of a book, any book including the Bible, rarely is the best approach.
"I'm yours forever." simply and undeniably is a statement of ownership. Every lexicon will show you that "yours" is about owning something. But we all know that's not
what those words are about. Likewise we can without any doubt prove the meaning of Hebrew and Greek words.... and still be totally wrong because idioms never are the sum of the literal meanings of the words.
Idioms are (part of) the proof that the NT was written* in Hebrew. Simply because those idioms only exited in Hebrew and not in Greek. I know the argument that they spoke Aramaic and even that the NT was written in Aramaic. While that's more and more disputed by scholars it doesn't really change the discussion because Armiac isn't Greek.
*=Likely you many times read my posts and thought something like: He did spell the words correctly but why did he switch noun and verb?
That's because I'm Dutch and I'm unable to get out my Dutch mindset, of if you wish grammar rules out of my English. Good linguists can spot Dutch, German, French, etc people from a mile away when writing in English.
The NT Greek is even worse. The translators didn't even attempt to replace Hebrew idioms with Greek idioms. When doing a one on one translation from Greek to Hebrew, the result is a verse that usually perfect Hebrew (complete with idioms)
The most important aspect is culture. No matter if the NT was written in directly in Greek or translated from Hebrew or Armiac it's writers were Jews. A Jew, especially in that time, wasn't defined as someone who speaks Hebrew. Every fiber of them was soaked in OT related thought patterns. The whole society was build around OT feasts, laws, customs and of course God and His Temple. So if <insert your favorite person> communicated with Gentiles they may have spoke Greek, Latin or any other language to them, but brain and heart were still completely Jewish.
So to summarize, even if it would be proven without a doubt the NT was originally written in Latin it doesn't remove the underlying Jewish mindset.